
Originally Posted by
InTheNeutralCorner
I don't know why some posters keep saying that Marquez won twice. If they present it as their opinion, then they are entitled to it. But they make it appear as fact. Based on what? I assume it's because they have knowledge that more people (probably not even a hundred) believe that Marquez won. There are likely to have been more than 500,000 people who watched the first and second fights so whatever knowledge they have is not even a representative sample of all the people who watched. It's like saying that McCain should have won the last US presidential election instead of Obama based on their survey of 1,000 people.
The official score is a DRAW and a WIN FOR PACQUIAO in the two fights that are too close to call. Give it a rest.
Okay, Pac got the verdict of the judges in their second bout. But
boxing scoring is not an exact science and when you have
most boxing writers and forum members arguing that Marquez won then you have to give that its weight as well.
This means that the boxing writers and forum members judging are likewise not an exact science. So how can one be better than the other when both are not exact science. And what do you mean by most? How many are this in numbers?
They say history is only written by the winners, but that does not mean that we ignore what really happened and what contemporary commentators really thought at the time.
But you are giving great value to the scores of those commentators who agrees with you. How many commentators did you know of that expressed their opinion as to who won?
The second fight in particular was close, but
most believe Marquez edged it.
How many in numbers is this 'most' that you talk about with regards to all the people who watched the fight.?
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