WBA Holyfield Decision?

[CGM]

A two punch difference is a 40% difference when there is only five punches thrown you knuckle head.

perhaps I am missing something, but here goes...

5 total punches with three by Holyfield means two by Valuev, right?

3+2 = 5 right?

here's the tough part: 3-2=1. So there is a one punch difference between the fighters.

Also 3 is 50% bigger than 2. right? So in fact what we have is a one punch 50% difference between the fighters, not a two punch 40% difference.

I knew I went to school for something.

p.s. a two punch difference with 5 total punches is impossible

You base your conclusion on the assumption that Valuev lands ever punch he throws when in reality he couldn't make contact with Holyfield, where as holyfield landed nearly all of the 5 punches he threw each round.

So yes, a two punch landing difference IS possible with five total punches thrown.

Ahhh, so clearly I misinterpreted your numbers then. That happens with statistics, don't it? cheers.

p.s., not too sure about that prime Tyson theory of yours. I don't believe you can dicredit a theory by attacking those who believe it as young and naive. Some of us guys who think prime tyson was a monster are in fact knowledgeable fans.