You keep on perpetuating this misconception. Pacquiao agrees to the drug test that is already in place, what he did not agree to is the drug test under Mayweather's terms. But Manny had finally agreed to the drug test as per Floyd's terms in the second negotiation and what happened?
No, it hasn't. The Pacquiao-Clottey fight is considered a success in terms of arena attendance & PPV buys even when Manny was against someone who is not a crowd drawer. So is the Pacquiao-Margarito fight considering that a number of posters here even advocated for a boycott.That has hurt Pac more than Floyd.
This is highly debatable. A number of people had argued in favor of Pacquiao for not agreeing to Mayweather's terms so there is no point in me bringing this up again.How can you argue against someone looking for comprehensive drug coverage and the other fighter sitting back saying "stop hurting my pride, no fight".
So, you think it's unreasonable for Manny to refuse the fight in the first negotiation because of terms that is being introduced by Floyd for the first time but it's alright for Floyd to decline the fight in the second negotiation so that he can go on vacation? Wasn't he just on a long vacation before he fought Marquez?The fight would likely have happened, but Manny couldn't deal with it in the first place. That's what I remember above all else right now.
Manny was the top dog then (and still is now). Didn't Floyd come back from his retirement to reclaim the number 1 spot? And who was on the number 1 spot then? Do you think he came back just to beat up an overweight opponent? Read DaxxKahn's comment above so that you will be enlightened.Manny was the one looking for that fight and he shrugged his shoulder. Floyd was the top dog and to agree would have been the correct way to continue.


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