Quote Originally Posted by LukeH View Post
Quote Originally Posted by InTheNeutralCorner View Post
Quote Originally Posted by Bilbo View Post
If Mosley knocks Manny out in two rounds of course everyone will say Floyd is better.
I think if Mosley knocks Manny out in ANY ROUND posters here (including me) will be saying (I won't be saying but I will be thinking) that Floyd is better. So, why would the reverse not be applicable? Shouldn't something that is applied to one also be applied to the other?

If Manny knocks Mosley out, it would appear that Manny is better. But I agree that this is subjective until Pacquiao and Mayweather fights each other. But then it would be up to Floyd to discredit that Manny appears better than him.

But why would he appear to be better than Mayweather? I suppose it could show that he has more power and is more aggressive than Mayweather, but that doesn't make him a better boxer.
Those would definitely make a boxer appear better that the other. The key word here is "appear' and is not a statement of fact. We would, probably, have to settle with who APPEARS to be better until they fight which would determine as to who IS better.