There are sort of 2 different discussions going on...what constitutes a robbery, and whether this fight was one. I think by the standard of the original post, there may never have been a robbery. For just about any decision that anyone ever lost, I could probably find a few people who scored many particular rounds the other way. If a million people gave Marquez a round, and ten people didn't - even 10 unbiased people - does that mean it's not a robbery? Does a robbery have to mean a one-sided fight? What if it's 105-105 on all cards after 11, and 99.999% of viewers and experts think the same guy won the 12th, and he loses the decision? Did he not get robbed, because it was a close fight? Or because that .001% agreed with their cards? It sounds to me like yeah, there's a disagreement about whether JMM was robbed, but there's also a disagreement about what constitute a robbery in the first place.

But if the standard is literally that nobody at all disputes that he clearly won a majority of the rounds, then I submit that nobody has ever been robbed in boxing history.