Originally Posted by Greenbeanz Originally Posted by Beanflicker How could you not have Bradley as a top p4p guy when he beat a top p4p guy in Marquez? Because as you keep telling us you are only as good as your last fight and Bradley just got owned by a past it Pacquiao. I'm talking pre-Pac 2. Certain people are talking like Bradley was a bum, but he was a universally recognized top p4p fighter.
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